Question: What were the monetary and fiscal policy

> Suppose that the equation for a particular short-run AS curve is P = 20 + .5Q, where P is the price level and Q is real output in dollar terms. What is Q if the price level is 120? Suppose that the Q in your answer is the full-employment level of output.

> Use the accompanying figure to answer the follow questions. Assume that the economy initially is operating at price level 120 and real output level $870. This output level is the economy’s potential (or full-employment) level of output.

> Critically evaluate and explain each statement: a. Because they can control product price, monopolists are always assured of profitable production by simply charging the highest price consumers will pay. b. The pure monopolist seeks the output that will

> Assume that a pure monopolist and a purely competitive firm have the same unit costs. Contrast the two with respect to (a) price, (b) output, (c) profits, (d) allocation of resources, and (e) impact on income transfers. Since both monopolists and c

> How does the demand curve faced by a purely monopolistic seller differ from that confronting a purely competitive firm? Why does it differ? Of what significance is the difference? Why is the pure monopolist’s demand curve not perfectly inelastic?

> Discuss the major barriers to entry into an industry. Explain how each barrier can foster either monopoly or oligopoly. Which barriers, if any, do you feel give rise to monopoly that is socially justifiable?

> “No firm is completely sheltered from rivals; all firms compete for consumer dollars. If that is so, then pure monopoly does not exist.” Do you agree? Explain. How might you use Chapter 6’s concept of cross elasticity of demand to judge whether a monopol

> How do the entry and exit of firms in a purely competitive industry affect resource flows and long-run profits and losses?

> True or False. The term economic investment includes purchasing stocks, bonds, and real estate.

> Suppose you have been tasked with regulating a single monopoly firm that sells 50-pound bags of concrete. The firm has fixed costs of $10 million per year and a variable cost of $1 per bag no matter how many bags are produced. a. If this firm kept on in

> A new production technology for making vitamins is invented by a college professor who decides not to patent it. Thus, it is available for anybody to copy and put into use. The TC per bottle for production up to 100,000 bottles per day is given in the fo

> Assume that the most efficient production technology available for making vitamin pills has the cost structure given in the following table. Note that output is measured as the number of bottles of vitamins produced per day and that costs include a norma

> Suppose that a price-discriminating monopolist has segregated its market into two groups of buyers. The first group described by the demand and revenue data that you developed for problem 1. The demand and revenue data for the second group of buyers is

> Suppose a pure monopolist is faced with the demand schedule shown below and the same cost data as the competitive producer discussed in problem 4 at the end of Chapter 10. Calculate the missing total-revenue and marginal-revenue amounts, and determine th

> Relate opportunity costs to why profits encourage entry into purely competitive industries and how losses encourage exit from purely competitive industries.

> The main problem with imposing the socially optimal price (P = MC) on a monopoly is that the socially optimal price: a. May be so low that the regulated monopoly can’t break even. b. May cause the regulated monopoly to engage in price discrimination. c.

> The socially optimal price (P = MC) is socially optimal because: a. It reduces the monopolist’s profit. b. It yields a normal profit. c. It minimizes ATC. d. It achieves allocative efficiency.

> Suppose that a monopolist can segregate his buyers into two different groups to which he can charge two different prices. In order to maximize profit, the monopolist should charge a higher price to the group that has: a. The higher elasticity of demand

> How often do perfectly competitive firms engage in price discrimination? a. Never. b. Rarely. c. Often. d. Always.

> True or False. Larger MPCs imply larger multipliers.

> Use the demand schedule below to calculate total revenue and marginal revenue at each quantity. Plot the demand, total-revenue, and marginal-revenue curves, and explain the relationships between them. Explain why the marginal revenue of the fourth unit o

> The MR curve of perfectly competitive firm is horizontal. The MR curve of monopoly firm is: a. Horizontal, too. b. Upsloping. c. Downsloping. d. It depends.

> Which of the following could explain why a firm is a monopoly? Select one or more answers from the choices shown. a. Patents b. Economies of scale. c. Inelastic demand. d. Government licenses. e. Downsloping market demand.

> If total spending is just sufficient to purchase an economy’s output, then the economy is: a. In equilibrium. b. In recession. c. In debt. d. In expansion.

> If an economy has an inflationary expenditure gap, the government could attempt to bring the economy back toward the full-employment level of GDP by ________ taxes or ________ government expenditures. a. Increasing; increasing. b. Increasing; decreasing

> The economy’s current level of equilibrium GDP is $780 billion. The full employment level of GDP is $800 billion. The multiplier is 4. Given those facts, we know that the economy faces ________ expenditure gap of ________. a. An inflationary; $5 billio

> True or False: The aggregate expenditures model assumes flexible prices.

> A depression abroad will tend to ________ our exports, which in turn will _________ net exports, which in turn will ________ equilibrium real GDP. a. Reduce; reduce; reduce. b. Increase; increase; increase. c. Reduce; increase; increase. d. Increase; re

> If the multiplier is 5 and investment increases by $3 billion, equilibrium real GDP will increase by: a. $2 billion. b. $3 billion. c. $8 billion. d. $15 billion. e. None of the above.

> If inventories unexpectedly rise, then production ________ sales and firms will respond by ________ output. a. Trails; expanding. b. Trails; reducing. c. Exceeds; expanding. d. Exceeds; reducing.

> If a $50 billion initial increase in spending leads to a $250 billion change in real GDP, how big is the multiplier? a. 1.0. b. 2.5. c. 4.0. d. 5.0.

> True or False: If spending exceeds output, real GDP will decline as firms cut back on production.

> Suppose that the price level is constant and that investment decreases sharply. How would you show this decrease in the aggregate expenditures model? What would be the outcome for real GDP? How would you show this fall in investment in the aggregate dema

> Explain carefully: “A change in the price level shifts the aggregate expenditures curve but not the aggregate demand curve.”

> Place “MON,” “RET,” or “MAIN” beside the statements that most closely reflect monetarist, rational expectations, or mainstream views, respectively: a. Anticipated changes in aggregate demand affect only the price level; they have no effect on real outpu

> Use an AD-AS graph to demonstrate and explain the price-level and real-output outcome of an anticipated decline in aggregate demand, as viewed by RET economists. (Assume that the economy initially is operating at its full-employment level of output.) The

> An economy is producing at full employment when AD unexpectedly shifts to the left. A new classical economist would assume that as the economy adjusted back to producing at full employment, the price level would ___________. a. Increase. b. Decrease. c.

> If the money supply fell by 10 percent, a monetarist would expect nominal GDP to _________. a. Rise. b. Fall. c. Stay the same.

> Suppose that the money supply is $1 trillion and money velocity is 4. Then the equation of exchange would predict nominal GDP to be: a. $1 trillion. b. $4 trillion. c. $5 trillion. d. $8 trillion.

> First, imagine that both input and output prices are fixed in the economy. What does the aggregate supply curve look like? If AD decreases in this situation, what will happen to equilibrium output and the price level? Next, imagine that input prices are

> If prices are sticky and the number of dollars of gross investment unexpectedly increases, the _________ curve will shift ____________. a. AD; right. b. AD; left. c. AS; right. d. AS; left.

> True or False: Real GDP is more volatile (variable) than gross investment.

> Explain how the long run differs from the short run in pure competition.

> Refer to Figure 2 in the Appendix and assume that Q1 is $400 and Q2 is $500, the price level is stuck at P1, and the slopes of the AE lines in Figure 2a are .75 and equal to the MPC. In what direction and by how much does the aggregate expenditures sched

> Refer to Figure 1a and 1b in the Appendix. Assume that Q1 is 300, Q2 is 200, Q3 is 100, P3 is 120, P2 is 100, and P1 is 80. If the price level increases from P1 to P3 in graph (b), in what direction and by how much will real GDP change? If the slopes of

> What would you expect to happen to the proportion of big chain restaurants relative to mom and pop restaurants in a town that lowered its minimum wage? Will the proportion change due to exits or entrances? Which type of restaurant will see more in the wa

> If the government decreases expenditures, the AE curve will shift _______ and the AD curve will shift _______. a. Down; left. b. Down; right. c. Up; left. d. Up; right.

> True or False: A higher price level increases aggregate expenditures.

> Critically evaluate and explain: a. In monopolistically competitive industries, economic profits are competed away in the long run; hence, there is no valid reason to criticize the performance and efficiency of such industries. b. In the long run, monop

> In early 2001 investment spending sharply declined in the United States. In the 2 months following the September 11, 2001, attacks on the United States, consumption also declined. Use AD-AS analysis to show the two impacts on real GDP.

> Use shifts of the AD and AS curves to explain (a) the U.S. experience of strong economic growth, full employment, and price stability in the late 1990s and early 2000s and (b) how a strong negative wealth effect from, say, a precipitous drop in house p

> Which of the following scenarios will shift the investment demand curve right? a. Business taxes increase. b. The expected return on capital increases. c. Firms have a lot of unused production capacity. d. Firms are planning on increasing their inventor

> Explain: “Unemployment can be caused by a decrease of aggregate demand or a decrease of aggregate supply.” In each case, specify the price-level outcomes.

> Why does a reduction in aggregate demand in the actual economy reduce real output, rather than the price level? Why might a full-strength multiplier apply to a decrease in aggregate demand?

> Explain how an upsloping aggregate supply curve weakens the realized multiplier effect from an initial change in investment spending.

> What assumptions cause the immediate-short-run aggregate supply curve to be horizontal? Why is the long-run aggregate supply curve vertical? Explain the shape of the short-run aggregate supply curve. Why is the short-run aggregate supply curve relatively

> Distinguish between “real-balances effect” and “wealth effect,” as the terms are used in this chapter. How does each relate to the aggregate demand curve?

> Why is the aggregate demand curve downsloping? Specify how your explanation differs from the explanation for the downsloping demand curve for a single product. What role does the multiplier play in shifts of the aggregate demand curve?

> “Competition in quality and service may be just as effective as price competition in giving buyers more for their money.” Do you agree? Why? Explain why monopolistically competitive firms frequently prefer nonprice competition to price competition.

> Refer to the data in the table that accompanies Problem 2. Suppose that the present equilibrium price level and level of real GDP are 100 and $225, and that data set B represents the relevant aggregate supply schedule for the economy. a. What must be th

> Suppose that the table below shows an economy’s relationship between real output and the inputs needed to produce that output: a. What is productivity in this economy? b. What is the per-unit cost of production if the price of each in

> Suppose that the aggregate demand and aggregate supply schedules for a hypothetical economy are as shown below: a. Use these sets of data to graph the aggregate demand and aggregate supply curves. What is the equilibrium price level and the equilibrium

> Irving owns a chain of movie theaters. He is considering whether he should build a new theater downtown. The expected rate of return is 15 percent per year. He can borrow money at a 12 percent interest rate to finance the project. Should Irving proceed w

> Answer the following questions on the basis of the three sets of data for the country of North Vaudeville: a. Which set of data illustrates aggregate supply in the immediate short run in North Vaudeville? The short run? The long run? b. Assuming no cha

> Suppose that consumer spending initially rises by $5 billion for every 1 percent rise in household wealth and that investment spending initially rises by $20 billion for every 1 percentage point fall in the real interest rate. Also assume that the econom

> “Monopolistic competition is monopolistic up to the point at which consumers become willing to buy close-substitute products and competitive beyond that point.” Explain.

> True or False: If the price of oil suddenly increases by a large amount, AS will shift left, but the price level will not rise thanks to price inflexibility.

> Assume that (a) the price level is flexible upward but not downward and (b) the economy is currently operating at its full-employment output. Other things equal, how will each of the following affect the equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of r

> True or False: Decreases in AD normally lead to decreases in both output and the price level.

> What effects would each of the following have on aggregate demand or aggregate supply, other things equal? In each case use a diagram to show the expected effects on the equilibrium price level and the level of real output, assuming that the price level

> At the current price level, producers supply $375 billion of final goods and services while consumers purchase $355 billion of final goods and services. The price level is: a. Above equilibrium. b. At equilibrium. c. Below equilibrium. d. More informati

> Which of the following will shift the aggregate supply curve to the right? a. A new networking technology increases productivity all over the economy. b. The price of oil rises substantially. c. Business taxes fall. d. The government passes a law doubli

> Label each of the following descriptions as being either an immediate-short-run aggregate supply curve, a short-run aggregate supply curve, or a long-run aggregate supply curve. a. A vertical line. b. The price level is fixed. c. Output prices are flexi

> In what direction will each of the following occurrences shift the consumption and saving schedules, other things equal? a. A large decrease in real estate values, including private homes. b. A sharp, sustained increase in stock prices. c. A 5-year incr

> Which of the following will shift the aggregate demand curve to the left? a. The government reduces personal income taxes. b. Interest rates rise. c. The government raises corporate profit taxes. d. There is an economic boom overseas that raises the inc

> Suppose that last year $30 billion in new loans were extended by banks while $50 billion in old loans were paid off by borrowers. What happened to the money supply? a. Increased. b. Decreased. c. Stayed the same.

> Suppose that the Fed has set the reserve ratio at 10 percent and that banks collectively have $2 billion in excess reserves. What is the maximum amount of new checkable-deposit money that can be created by the banking system? a. $0. b. $200 million. c.

> Suppose that the banking system in Canada has a required reserve ratio of 10 percent while the banking system in the United States has a required reserve ratio of twenty percent. In which country would $100 of initial excess reserves be able to cause a l

> The two conflicting goals facing commercial banks are: a. Profit and liquidity. b. Profit and loss. c. Deposits and withdrawals. d. Assets and liabilities.

> A single commercial bank in a multibank banking system can lend only an amount equal to its initial preloan _________________. a. Total reserves. b. Excess reserves. c. Total deposits. d. Excess deposits.

> The actual reason that banks must hold required reserves is: a. To enhance liquidity and deter bank runs. b. To help fund the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, which insures bank deposits. c. To give the Fed control over the lending ability of comm

> A commercial bank has $100 million in checkable-deposit liabilities and $12 million in actual reserves. The required reserve ratio is 10 percent. How big are the bank’s excess reserves? a. $100 million. b. $88 million. c. $12 million. d. $2 million.

> A goldsmith has $2 million of gold in his vaults. He issues $5 million in gold receipts. His gold holdings are what fraction of the paper money (gold receipts) he has issued? a. 1/10. b. 1/5. c. 2/5. d. 5/5.

> Which of the following help to explain why the aggregate demand curve slopes downward? a. When the domestic price level rises, our goods and services become more expensive to foreigners. b. When government spending rises, the price level falls. c. There

> If the MPS rises, then the MPC will: a. Fall. b. Rise. c. Stay the same.

> What is rent seeking and how does it differ from the kinds of profit maximization and profit seeking that we discussed in previous chapters? Provide an actual or hypothetical example of rent seeking by firms in an industry. By a union. By a professional

> Compare the elasticity of a monopolistic competitor’s demand with that of a pure competitor and a pure monopolist. Assuming identical long-run costs, compare graphically the prices and outputs that would result in the long run under pure competition and

> What do economists mean when they say Social Security and Medicare are "pay-as-you-go" plans? What are the Social Security and Medicare trust funds, and how long will they have money left in them? What is the key long-run problem of both Social Security

> Trace the cause-and-effect chain through which financing and refinancing of the public debt might affect real interest rates, private investment, the stock of capital, and economic growth. How might investment in public capital and complementarities betw

> Why might economists be quite concerned if the annual interest payments on the U.S. public debt sharply increased as a percentage of GDP?

> True or false? If false, explain why. a. The total public debt is more relevant to an economy than the public debt as a percentage of GDP. b. An internally held public debt is like a debt of the left hand owed to the right hand. c. The Federal Reserve a

> How do economists distinguish between the absolute and relative sizes of the public debt? Why is the distinction important? Distinguish between refinancing the debt and retiring the debt. How does an internally held public debt differ from an externally

> Briefly state and evaluate the problem of time lags in enacting and applying fiscal policy. Explain the idea of a political business cycle. How might expectations of a near-term policy reversal weaken fiscal policy based on changes in tax rates? What is

> Define the cyclically-adjusted budget, explain its significance, and state why it may differ from the actual budget. Suppose the full-employment, noninflationary level of real output is GDP3 (not GDP2) in the economy depicted in Figure 33.3. If the econo

> Explain how built-in (or automatic) stabilizers work. What are the differences between proportional, progressive, and regressive tax systems as they relate to an economy’s built-in stability?

> Some politicians have suggested that the United States enact a constitutional amendment requiring that the Federal government balance its budget annually. Explain why such an amendment, if strictly enforced, would force the government to enact a contract

> In year one, Adam earns $1,000 and saves $100. In year 2, Adam gets a $500 raise so that he earns a total of $1,500. Out of that $1,500, he saves $200. What is Adam’s MPC out of his $500 raise? a. 0.50. b. 0.75. c. 0.80. d. 1.00.

> (For students who were assigned Chapter 29) Use the aggregate expenditures model to show how government fiscal policy could eliminate either a recessionary expenditure gap or an inflationary expenditure gap (Figure 29.7). Explain how equal-size increases

> What are government’s fiscal policy options for ending severe demand-pull inflation? Which of these fiscal options do you think might be favored by a person who wants to preserve the size of government? A person who thinks the public sector is too large?

> What is the role of the Council of Economic Advisers (CEA) as it relates to fiscal policy? Use an Internet search to find the names and university affiliations of the present members of the CEA.