Consider the following organizations. How would you define quality in each context? Specify attributes/variables that may measure quality. How do you integrate these measures? Discuss the ease or difficulties associated with obtaining values for the various measures. (a) Call center for a company that sells computers (b) Emergency services (i.e., ambulances) for a city or municipality (c) Company making semiconductor chips (d) Hospital (e) Company that delivers mail/packages on a rapid basis (f) Department store (g) Bank (h) Hydroelectric power plant (i) Insurance company (j) Internet service provider
> What are the drawbacks of some traditional performance appraisal systems and how may they be modified?
> Discuss the organizational structure in a typical health care facility. What barriers might this create and what are some remedial measures?
> Explain the organizational barriers that prevent a company from adopting the quality philosophy. Describe some specific action plans to remove such barriers.
> Describe some characteristics for selecting vendors in the following organizations and the selection process to be followed: (a) Supermarket (b) Physician’s office (c) Fast-food restaurant
> Discuss the processes through which supply chain quality may be monitored.
> What are the reasons for mass inspection not being a feasible alternative for quality? improvement?
> Explain the notion of the extended process and its significance. Discuss this in the context of the following organizations: (a) Hardware vendor (such as for computers and printers) (b) Hospital (c) Software company (d) Entertainment industry
> The following companies are interested in conducting a market survey of their products/ services. Explain the possible sampling techniques that they might choose. (a) High-end automobiles (b) Cooking range (c) Cell phones (d) Boutique clothes (e) City mu
> Consider the price of homes in a large metropolitan area. What kind of distribution would you expect in terms of skewness and kurtosis? As an index, would the mean or median price be representative? What would the interquartile range indicate?
> Refer to Exercise 4-7. For each situation, define a type I and a type II error in the appropriate context. Consider the costs of such errors and discuss the implications. Data from Exercise 4-7: State the null and alternative hypotheses in the following
> You are interested in developing a regression model to predict monthly sales of a departmental store. Discuss the independent variables that you might select. How would you select the functional form for these independent variables?
> A health care facility is exploring the relationship between annual costs based on the number of patients seen and the number of emergency cases. (a) Explain what an outlier means in this context. How would you statistically test for the presence of an o
> A marketing company wants to determine if the combined years of experience of its staff who worked on a proposal have an impact on the chance of winning a contract. What is the equation of an appropriate model?
> A financial institution wants to explore the relationship between a loan application approval time and the independent variables of annual salary of the applicant and years of employment. (a) What is the equation of a regression model? (b) In order to sa
> Refer to Exercises 13-1 and 13-2. Suppose you believe that the impact of contract cost on web development time is dependent on the type of industry that the company is from. (a) What is the model equation in this context? (b) What null hypothesis would y
> As natural resources become scarce, discuss the role of ISO 14000 in promoting good environmental management practices.
> (a) Refer to Exercise 13-1. Based on historical information, the company believes that the type of industry that the customer belongs to influences web development time. Suppose that there are four industry types: manufacturing, banking, airlines, and he
> Refer to Exercise 13-1. What null hypothesis would you test to determine if contract cost is significant in the presence of the other independent variables? What null hypothesis would you test to determine if the number of projects undertaken could be dr
> An information technology company that specializes in website development is interested in modelling development time as a function of the contract cost, number of available developers, and number of projects undertaken. (a) Write down the equation of th
> Explain why it does not make sense to test for the main effects in a factorial experiment if the interaction effects are significant.
> Distinguish between a randomized block design and a Latin square design. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a Latin square design?
> Explain the difference between the completely randomized design and the randomized block design. Discuss in the context of a gasoline refining process. Under what conditions would you prefer to use each design?
> What is the difference between a fixed effects model and a random effects model? Give some examples in the logistics area.
> What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative variables? Give examples of each in the transportation industry. Which of these two classes permit interpolation of the response variable?
> Explain the concept of interaction between factors and give some examples in the entertainment industry.
> Explain the principles of replication, randomization, and blocking and discuss their roles in experimental design in a semiconductor manufacturing company.
> Discuss the impact of technological breakthrough on the prevention and appraisal cost and failure cost functions.
> Explain the importance of experimental design in quality control and improvement for a financial institution.
> Discuss the signal-to-noise ratio. How is it used in the Taguchi method? What is an adjustment parameter and how is it used?
> Compare and contrast Taguchi’s loss functions for the situations target is best, smaller is better, and larger is better. Give examples in the hospitality industry.
> Discuss Taguchi’s philosophy for quality improvement. Discuss his loss function and its contributions.
> What is the role of a defining contrast, or generator, in fractional factorial experiments? Distinguish between a principal fraction and an alternate fraction.
> Clearly distinguish between the principles of confounding and fractionalization.
> What are the features of a 2k factorial experiment? What are the features of a 2k–2 fractional factorial experiment and how is it constructed?
> What is the utility of contrasts in experimental design? What are orthogonal contrasts and how are they helpful?
> Distinguish between factor, treatment, and treatment levels in the context of a health care facility.
> Distinguish between failure-, time-terminated, and sequential tests for reliability and life testing.
> Explain why it is possible for external failure costs to go up even if the first-pass quality level of a product made by a company remains the same.
> Explain procedures that might improve the reliability of a system. How would you increase the availability of a system? Distinguish between a system with components in parallel and another with standby components.
> Describe the life cycle of a product. What probability distributions would you use to model each phase?
> Define reliability. Explain its role in quality control and improvement.
> Discuss the context in which minimizing the average sample number would be a feasible criterion. Which type of sampling plan (single, double, or multiple) would be preferable and what factors would influence your choice?
> If rectification inspection is used, discuss possible criteria to sampling plans.
> Explain the difference between average sample number and average total inspection. State any assumptions made.
> If you were interested in protection for acceptance of a single lot from a vendor with whom you do not expect to conduct much business, what criteria would you select and why?
> Distinguish between average outgoing quality and acceptable quality level. Explain the meaning and importance of the average outgoing quality limit.
> Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of single, double, and multiple sampling plans.
> What is the importance of the OC curve in the selection of sampling plans? Describe the impact of the sample size and the acceptance number on the OC curve. What is the disadvantage of having an acceptance number of zero?
> For a regional hospital in a metropolitan area, what are some of the internal failure and external failure costs? How might they be reduced?
> If astronauts could travel at v = 0.950c, we on Earth would say it takes (4.20/0.950) = 4.42 years to reach Alpha Centauri, 4.20 light - years away. The astronauts disagree. (a) How much time passes on the astronauts’ clocks? (b) What is the distance to
> Protons in an accelerator at the Fermi National Laboratory near Chicago are accelerated to a total energy that is 400 times their rest energy. (a) What is the speed of these protons in terms of c? (b) What is their kinetic energy in MeV?
> A proton moves with a speed of 0.950c. Calculate (a) Its rest energy, (b) Its total energy, and (c) Its kinetic energy.
> A rocket moves with a velocity of 0.92c to the right with respect to a stationary observer A. An observer B moving relative to observer A finds that the rocket is moving with a velocity of 0.95c to the left. What is the velocity of observer B relative to
> A pulsar is a stellar object that emits light in short bursts. Suppose a pulsar with a speed of 0.950c approaches Earth, and a rocket with a speed of 0.995c heads toward the pulsar. (Both speeds are measured in Earth’s frame of reference.) If the pulsar
> Spaceship A moves away from Earth at a speed of 0.800c (Fig. P26.25). Spaceship B pursues at a speed of 0.900c relative to Earth. Observers on Earth see B overtaking A at a relative speed of 0.100c. With what speed is B overtaking A as seen by the crew o
> Two identical spaceships with proper lengths of 175 m are launched from Earth. Spaceship A is launched in one direction at 0.500c and spaceship B is launched in the opposite direction at 0.750c. (a) What is the speed of spaceship B relative to spaceship
> A spaceship is moving away from Earth at 0.900c when it fires a small rocket in the forward direction at 0.500c relative to the spaceship. Calculate the rocket’s speed relative to Earth.
> A spaceship travels at 0.750c relative to Earth. If the spaceship fires a small rocket in the forward direction, how fast (relative to the ship) must it be fired for it to travel at 0.950c relative to Earth?
> An electron moves to the right with a speed of 0.90c relative to the laboratory frame. A proton moves to the left with a speed of 0.70c relative to the electron. Find the speed of the proton relative to the laboratory frame.
> True or False: People traveling near the speed of light relative to Earth would measure their lifespans and find them, on the average, longer than the average human lifespan as measured on Earth.
> Spaceship R is moving to the right at a speed of 0.70c with respect to Earth. A second spaceship, L, moves to the left at the same speed with respect to Earth. What is the speed of L with respect to R?
> A spaceship moves past Earth with a speed of 0.900c. As it is passing, a person on Earth measures the spaceship’s length to be 75.0 m. (a) Determine the spaceship’s proper length. (b) Determine the time required for the spaceship to pass a point on Earth
> An unstable particle at rest breaks up into two fragments of unequal mass. The mass of the lighter fragment is equal to 2.50 x 10-28 kg and that of the heavier fragment is 1.67 x 10-27 kg. If the lighter fragment has a speed of 0.893c after the breakup,
> Calculate the classical momentum of a proton traveling at 0.990c, (a) Neglecting relativistic effects. (b) Repeat the calculation while including relativistic effects. (c) Does it make sense to neglect relativity at such speeds?
> An electron has a momentum with magnitude three times the magnitude of its classical momentum. (a) Find the speed of the electron. (b) How would your result change if the particle were a proton?
> At what speed do the classical and relativistic values of a particle’s momentum differ by 10.0%?
> (a) What is the momentum of a proton moving at 0.900c? (b) At what speed will a particle’s relativistic momentum equal twice its classical momentum?
> A box is cubical with sides of proper lengths L1 = L2 = L3, as shown in Figure P26.14, when viewed in its own rest frame. If this block moves parallel to one of its edges with a speed of 0.80c past an observer, (a) What shape does it appear to have to th
> A supertrain of proper length 1.00 x 102 m travels at a speed of 0.95c as it passes through a tunnel having proper length 50.0 m. As seen by a trackside observer, is the train ever completely within the tunnel? If so, by how much?
> A car traveling at 35.0 m/s takes 26.0 minutes to travel a certain distance according to the driver’s clock in the car. How long does the trip take according to an observer at rest on Earth? Hint: The following approximation is helpful: [1 – x]-1/2 ≈ 1 +
> Suppose you are observing a binary star with a telescope and are having difficulty resolving the two stars. Which color filter will better help resolve the stars? (a) Blue (b) Red (c) Neither because colored filters have no effect on resolution
> The proper length of one spaceship is three times that of another. The two spaceships are traveling in the same direction and, while both are passing overhead, an Earth observer measures the two spaceships to have the same length. If the slower spaceship
> A star is 15.0 light - years (ly) from Earth. (a) At what constant speed must a spacecraft travel on its journey to the star so that the Earth–star distance measured by an astronaut onboard the spacecraft is 3.00 ly? (b) What is the journey’s travel time
> The control panel on a spaceship contains a light that blinks every 2.00 s as observed by an astronaut in the ship. If the spaceship is moving past Earth with a speed of 0.750c, determine (a) The proper time interval between blinks and (b) The time inter
> A Boy Scout starts a fire by using a lens from his eyeglasses to focus sunlight on kindling 5.0 cm from the lens. The Boy Scout has a near point of 15 cm. When the lens is used as a simple magnifier, (a) What is the maximum magnification that can be achi
> A laboratory (astronomical) telescope is used to view a scale that is 300 cm from the objective, which has a focal length of 20.0 cm; the eyepiece has a focal length of 2.00 cm. Calculate the angular magnification when the telescope is adjusted for minim
> A cataract - impaired lens in an eye may be surgically removed and replaced by a manufactured lens. The focal length required for the new lens is determined by the lens - to - retina distance, which is measured by a sonar - like device, and by the requir
> If the aqueous humor of the eye has an index of refraction of 1.34 and the distance from the vertex of the cornea to the retina is 2.00 cm, what is the radius of curvature of the cornea for which distant objects will be focused on the retina? (For simpli
> The near point of an eye is 75.0 cm. (a) What should be the power of a corrective lens prescribed to enable the eye to see an object clearly at 25.0 cm? (b) If, using the corrective lens, the person can see an object clearly at 26.0 cm but not at 25.0 cm
> If a typical eyeball is 2.00 cm long and has a pupil opening that can range from about 2.00 mm to 6.00 mm, what are (a) The focal length of the eye when it is focused on objects 1.00 m away, (b) The smallest f - number of the eye when it is focused on ob
> An American standard analog television picture (non-HDTV), also known as NTSC, is composed of approximately 485 visible horizontal lines of varying light intensity. Assume your ability to resolve the lines is limited only by the Rayleigh criterion, the p
> Two campers wish to start a fire during the day. One camper is nearsighted and one is farsighted. Whose glasses should be used to focus the Sun’s rays onto some paper to start the fire? (a) Either camper’s (b) The nearsighted camper’s (c) The farsighted
> A person with a nearsighted eye has near and far points of 16 cm and 25 cm, respectively. (a) Assuming a lens is placed 2.0 cm from the eye, what power must the lens have to correct this condition? (b) Suppose contact lenses placed directly on the cornea
> The Yerkes refracting telescope has a 1.00-m-diameter objective lens of focal length 20.0 m. Assume it is used with an eyepiece of focal length 2.50 cm. (a) Determine the magnification of the planet Mars as seen through the telescope. (b) Are the observe
> Estimate the minimum angle subtended at the eye of a hawk flying at an altitude of 50 m necessary to recognize a mouse on the ground.
> A thin sheet of transparent material has an index of refraction of 1.40 and is 15.0 μm thick. When it is inserted in the light path along one arm of an interferometer, how many fringe shifts occur in the pattern? Assume the wavelength (in a vacuum) of th
> The Michelson interferometer can be used to measure the index of refraction of a gas by placing an evacuated transparent tube in the light path along one arm of the device. Fringe shifts occur as the gas is slowly added to the tube. Assume 600.-nm light
> An interferometer is used to measure the length of a bacterium. The wavelength of the light used is 650. nm. As one arm of the interferometer is moved from one end of the cell to the other, 310. fringe shifts are counted. How long is the bacterium?
> Mirror M1 in Figure 25.16 is displaced a distance ΔL. During this displacement, 250 fringe shifts are counted. The light being used has a wavelength of 632.8 nm. Calculate the displacement ΔL. Figure 25.16:
> Light of wavelength 550. nm is used to calibrate a Michelson interferometer. With the use of a micrometer screw, the platform on which one mirror is mounted is moved 0.180 mm. How many fringe shifts are counted?
> Monochromatic light is beamed into a Michelson interferometer. The movable mirror is displaced 0.382 mm, causing the central spot in the interferometer pattern to change from bright to dark and back to bright N = 1 700 times. (a) Determine the wavelength
> A 15.0-cm-long grating has 6.00 x 103 slits per centimeter. Can two lines of wavelengths 600.000 nm and 600.003 nm be separated with this grating? Explain.
> Suppose you’re an astronaut being paid according to the time you spend traveling in space. You take a long voyage traveling at a speed near that of light. Upon your return to Earth, you’re asked how you’d like to be paid: according to the time elapsed on
> The Hα line in hydrogen has a wavelength of 656.20 nm. This line differs in wavelength from the corresponding spectral line in deuterium (the heavy stable isotope of hydrogen) by 0.18 nm. (a) Determine the minimum number of lines a grating must have to r
> A diffraction grating has a second-order resolving power of 1250. (a) Find the number of illuminated lines on the grating. (b) Calculate the smallest difference in wavelengths surrounding 525 nm that can be resolved in the first-order diffraction pattern
> A spy satellite circles Earth at an altitude of 200. km and carries out surveillance with a special high-resolution telescopic camera having a lens diameter of 35 cm. If the angular resolution of this camera is limited by diffraction, estimate the separa
> Suppose a 5.00-m-diameter telescope were constructed on the Moon, where the absence of atmospheric distortion would permit excellent viewing. If observations were made using 500.-nm light, what minimum separation between two objects could just be resolve
> Two stars located 23 light-years from Earth are barely resolved using a reflecting telescope having a mirror of diameter 68 cm. Assuming λ = 575 nm and assuming that the resolution is limited only by diffraction, find the separation between the stars.
> A vehicle with headlights separated by 2.00 m approaches an observer holding an infrared detector sensitive to radiation of wavelength 885 nm. What aperture diameter is required in the detector if the two headlights are to be resolved at a distance of 10
> (a) Calculate the limiting angle of resolution for the eye, assuming a pupil diameter of 2.00 mm, a wavelength of 500 nm in air, and an index of refraction for the eye of 1.33. (b) What is the maximum distance from the eye at which two points separated