Question: Here is some price information on Fincorp

> What do you think would happen to the expected return on stocks if investors perceived an increase in the volatility of stocks?

> Your client (see previous problem) wonders whether to switch the 70% that is invested in your fund to the index portfolio. a. Explain to your client the disadvantage of the switch. b. Show your client the maximum fee you could charge (as a percent of t

> You estimate that a passive portfolio invested to mimic the S&P 500 stock index provides an expected rate of return of 13% with a standard deviation of 25%. a. Draw the CML and your fund’s CAL on an expected return/standard deviation diagram. b. What i

> Suppose the same client as in the previous problem prefers to invest in your portfolio a proportion (y) that maximizes the expected return on the overall portfolio subject to the constraint that the overall portfolio’s standard deviation will not exceed

> Suppose the same client in the previous problem decides to invest in your risky portfolio a proportion (y) of his total investment budget so that his overall portfolio will have an expected rate of return of 15%. a. What is the proportion y? b. What ar

> Your client chooses to invest 70% of a portfolio in your fund and 30% in a T-bill money market fund. a. What are the expected return and standard deviation of your client’s portfolio? b. Suppose your risky portfolio includes the follo

> Abigail Grace has a $900,000 fully diversified portfolio. She subsequently inherits ABC Company common stock worth $100,000. Her financial adviser provided her with the following estimates: The correlation coefficient of ABC stock returns with the origin

> Consider a risky portfolio. The end-of-year cash flow derived from the portfolio will be either $50,000 or $150,000, with equal probabilities of 0.5. The alternative riskless investment in T-bills pays 5%. a. If you require a risk premium of 10%, how mu

> What has been the historical average real rate of return on stocks, Treasury bonds, and Treasury bills?

> Suppose you’ve estimated that the fifth-percentile value at risk of a portfolio is −30%. Now you wish to estimate the portfolio’s first-percentile VaR (the value below which lie 1% of the returns). Will the 1% VaR be greater or less than −30%?

> What are some comparative advantages of investing your assets in the following: (LO 4-2) a. Unit investment trusts. b. Open-end mutual funds. c. Individual stocks and bonds that you choose for yourself.

> Balanced funds and asset allocation funds each invest in both the stock and bond markets. What is the difference between these types of funds?

> Would you expect a typical open-end fixed-income mutual fund to have higher or lower operating expenses than a fixed-income unit investment trust? Why?

> What are some differences between hedge funds and mutual funds?

> What are the advantages and disadvantages of exchange-traded funds versus mutual funds?

> What are some differences between a unit investment trust and a closed-end fund?

> What is a 12b-1 fee?

> George Stephenson’s current portfolio of $2 million is invested as follows: Stephenson soon expects to receive an additional $2 million and plans to invest the entire amount in an exchange-traded fund that best complements the current p

> The Investments Fund sells Class A shares with a front-end load of 6% and Class B shares with 12b1 fees of 0.5% annually as well as back-end load fees that start at 5% and fall by 1% for each full year the investor holds the portfolio (until the fifth ye

> You purchased 1,000 shares of the New Fund at a price of $20 per share at the beginning of the year. You paid a front-end load of 4%. The securities in which the fund invests increase in value by 12% during the year. The fund’s expense ratio is 1.2%. Wha

> The New Fund (from Problem 22) had an expense ratio of 1.1%, and its management fee was 0.7%. a. What were the total fees paid to the fund’s investment managers during the year? b. What were the other administrative expenses?

> The New Fund had average daily assets of $2.2 billion in the past year. The fund sold $400 million and purchased $500 million worth of stock during the year. What was its turnover ratio?

> Consider a mutual fund with $200 million in assets at the start of the year and with 10 million shares outstanding. The fund invests in a portfolio of stocks that provides dividend income at the end of the year of $2 million. The stocks included in the f

> a. Impressive Fund had excellent investment performance last year, with portfolio returns that placed it in the top 10% of all funds with the same investment policy. Do you expect it to be a top performer next year? Why or why not? b. Suppose instead th

> Why can closed-end funds sell at prices that differ from net value while open-end funds do not?

> City Street Fund has a portfolio of $450 million and liabilities of $10 million. a. If there are 44 million shares outstanding, what is the net asset value? b. If a large investor redeems 1 million shares, what happens to the portfolio value, to shares

> Loaded-Up Fund charges a 12b-1 fee of 1% and maintains an expense ratio of .75%. Economy Fund charges a front-end load of 2%, but has no 12b-1 fee and has an expense ratio of .25%. Assume the rate of return on both funds’ portfolios (before any fees) is

> A closed-end fund starts the year with a net asset value of $12. By year-end, NAV equals $12.10. At the beginning of the year, the fund is selling at a 2% premium to NAV. By the end of the year, the fund is selling at a 7% discount to NAV. The fund paid

> A three-asset portfolio has the following characteristics: What is the expected return on this three-asset portfolio?

> Corporate Fund started the year with a net asset value of $12.50. By year-end, its NAV equaled $12.10. The fund paid year-end distributions of income and capital gains of $1.50. What was the rate of return to an investor in the fund?

> The Closed Fund is a closed-end investment company with a portfolio currently worth $200 million. It has liabilities of $3 million and 5 million shares outstanding. a. What is the NAV of the fund? b. If the fund sells for $36 per share, what is its pre

> Reconsider the Fingroup Fund in the previous problem. If during the year the portfolio manager sells all of the holdings of stock D and replaces it with 200,000 shares of stock E at $50 per share and 200,000 shares of stock F at $25 per share, what is th

> The composition of the Fingroup Fund portfolio is as follows: The fund has not borrowed any funds, but its accrued management fee with the portfolio manager currently totals $30,000. There are 4 million shares outstanding. What is the net asset value of

> If the offering price of an open-end fund is $12.30 per share and the fund is sold with a front-end load of 5%, what is its net asset value?

> An open-end fund has a net asset value of $10.70 per share. It is sold with a front-end load of 6%. What is the offering price?

> Open-end equity mutual funds commonly keep a small fraction of total investments in very liquid money market assets. Closed-end funds do not have to maintain such a position in “cashequivalent” securities. What difference between open-end and closed-end

> What are the benefits to small investors of investing via mutual funds? What are the disadvantages?

> How does buying on margin magnify both the upside potential and downside risk of an investment portfolio?

> What is the role of an underwriter? A prospectus?

> A portfolio of no dividend-paying stocks earned a geometric mean return of 5% between January 1, 2014, and December 31, 2020. The arithmetic mean return for the same period was 6%. If the market value of the portfolio at the beginning of 2014 was $100,00

> Why have average trade sizes declined in recent years?

> What are the differences between a limit order and a market order?

> In what circumstances are private placements more likely to be used than public offerings?

> How do security dealers earn their profits?

> What is the difference between a primary and a secondary market?

> Suppose that you sell short 500 shares of XTel, currently selling for $40 per share, and give your broker $15,000 to establish your margin account. a. If you earn no interest on the funds in your margin account, what will be your rate of return after on

> Suppose that XTel currently is selling at $40 per share. You buy 500 shares using $15,000 of your own money, borrowing the remainder of the purchase price from your broker. The rate on the margin loan is 8%. a. What is the percentage increase in the net

> On January 1, you sold short one round lot (i.e., 100 shares) of Snow’s stock at $21 per share. On March 1, a dividend of $3 per share was paid. On April 1, you covered the short sale by buying the stock at a price of $15 per share. You paid 50 cents per

> You’ve borrowed $20,000 on margin to buy shares in Ixnay, which is now selling at $40 per share. Your account starts at the initial margin requirement of 50%. The maintenance margin is 35%. Two days later, the stock price falls to $35 per share. a. Will

> An analyst estimates that a stock has the following probabilities of return depending on the state of the economy. What is the expected return of the stock?

> Preferred stock yields often are lower than yields on bonds of the same quality because of: a. Marketability b. Risk c. Taxation d. Call protection

> 11) The ________ unit helps prepare photographic exhibits for courtroom presentation. 12) Forensic science is the application of science to the ________. 13) Fingerprinting replaced ________ as a method of personal identification. 14) The ________ ana

> 1) The “father of forensic toxicology” is considered to be ________. 2) ________ undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints and developed a methodology of classifying them for filing. 3) ________ was the first to use a comparison microscope t

> 11) A facial recognition system can be easily tricked by a ________ picture. 12) One of the main problems with retina biometrics is that viable images can be affected by ________. 13) The FBI has contracted the help of ________ to implement and maintai

> 1) The ________ generation module is responsible for saving all of the raw data produced by feature extraction and putting it into a simple and easy-to-read format for the system. 2) Early researchers in facial recognition used ________ to automate fac

> 21) Livor mortis continues for up to ________ hours after death. 22) Time of death can be estimated by measuring the concentration of ________ in the victim’s eye fluids. 23) The ________ of a skeleton can be determined by observing the shape of the pe

> 11) Petechiae are caused by the escaping of blood into the tissue as a result of ________ bursting. 12) A(n) ________ in its broadest definition is simply the examination of a body after death. 13) During decomposition, the body may experience ________

> 1) Disease and environmental abuse fall under the ________ category of manner of death. 2) The goal of a(n) ________ autopsy is to determine the cause and manner of death. 3) Hemorrhages in the eyelids are known as ________. 4) Types of injuries that

> 11) The three kinds of crime scene fingerprints are visible prints, latent prints, and ________ prints. 12) Four common chemical methods for visualizing latent prints are SuperGlue fuming, ninhydrin, physical developer, and ________ fuming. 13) The ana

> 1) Fingerprints are a reproduction of ________ skin ridges found on the palm side of the fingers and thumbs. 2) The identity, number, and relative location of ridge characteristics impart ________ to a fingerprint. 3) Ridge characteristics are also kno

> 11) In general, as the force of the impact on the source of blood increases, the velocity of the blood droplets emanating from the source ________. 12) Drops propelled from a pointed surface will be smaller and the pattern more ________. 13) Cast-off p

> In cooperation with the medical examiner or coroner, what type of evidence is to be retrieved from a deceased victim for examination in the crime laboratory?

> 1) ________ spatter is projected outward and away from the source. 2) In general, as both the force and velocity of impact increase, the diameter of the resulting blood droplets ________. 3) The location of injury, the size of the wound created, the di

> 11) The process of identification requires the adoption of testing procedures that give characteristic results for specific ________ materials. 12) The product rule is used to determine the frequency of occurrence of ________ profiles, typically determi

> 31) The firearms unit may also analyze tool marks. A) True B) False 32) Physical evidence is subject to bias. A) True B) False 33) One major problem in forensic DNA laboratories is the backlog of unanalyzed DNA samples. A) True B) False 34) Region

> 21) Karl Landsteiner and Leone Lattes are associated with the area of blood typing. A) True B) False 22) Dr. Walter C. McCrone made significant contributions to forensic science using the microscope. A) True B) False 23) The increase in crime rates in

> 11) The physical science unit would perform soil and mineral analysis. A) True B) False 12) The comparison of hairs and fibers would be performed in the biology unit. A) True B) False 13) Examining garments and other objects in order to detect firea

> 1) One of the earliest crime laboratories was founded by Albert Osborn. A) True B) False 2) The case of Frye v. United States deals with the legal issue of general acceptance of scientific principles. A) True B) False 3) The administration of a polygra

> 11) The iris is responsible for obtaining a clear picture of what a person is actually seeing. A) True B) False 12) Like iris biometrics, facial recognition scans are intrusive and cannot gain data in a way that is comfortable and hygienic for its users

> 1) There are three main functions of biometrics. A) True B) False 2) Linear discriminant analysis is considered a model-based facial recognition. A) True B) False 3) The military has been using biometrics for an extended period of time to keep sensiti

> 21) Skeletal bones are resistant to rapid decomposition. A) True B) False 22) Forensic entomology is often used to help estimate the time of death. A) True B) False 23) The known sequence of arrival of different insect groups cannot help to determine t

> 11) Another name for a bruise is a contusion. A) True B) False 12) High levels of carbon monoxide are needed to cause a victim to become disoriented. A) True B) False 13) Carbon monoxide levels continue to rise in the body even after death. A) True B)

> What is postmortem redistribution and how do forensic pathologists avoid it?

> 1) It is not feasible for a medical examiner to respond to every death scene in person. A) True B) False 2) A pathologist must examine a body’s wounds to determine if the death was a homicide and if the assailant had intent to kill. A) True B) False 3)

> 11) The three kinds of crime scene fingerprints are visible prints, invisible prints, and latent prints. A) True B) False 12) Soft and porous surfaces are preferably developed by applying fingerprint powder or treating with Superglue. A) True B) False

> 1) Ridge characteristics are ridge endings, bifurcations, enclosures, and other ridge details which must match in two fingerprints to establish their common origin. A) True B) False 2) The shape of the boundary formed from dermal papillae determines th

> 11) Voids may help investigators establish the body position of the victim or assailant at the time of the incident. A) True B) False 12) The first transfer pattern will be lighter in color while subsequent transfers will be increasingly dark and heavy

> 1) The pointed end of a bloodstain always faces its direction of travel. A) True B) False 2) A bloodstain that impacts a surface at a low angle with have a shorter tail than one that impacts at a higher angle. A) True B) False 3) Forward spatter is

> 11) Juries often accord scientific evidence lesser weight than other evidence. A) True B) False 12) CODIS is maintained by the FBI and thus does not enable local crime laboratories to electronically exchange and compare DNA profiles. A) True B) False

> 1) Evidence having class characteristics can exonerate an innocent suspect. A) True B) False 2) Determining that an explosive mixture contains dynamite is an example of the process of comparison. A) True B) False 3) The “jigsaw fit” of known and ques

> 31) Evidence may be moved only after investigators have documented its location and appearance in notes, sketches, and photographs. A) True B) False 32) The investigator should not remove trace evidence from items at the crime scene; instead, he or she

> 21) Failure to protect a crime scene properly may result in the destruction or altering of evidence. A) True B) False 22) The first priority of the first officer responding to a crime scene is securing the crime scene. A) True B) False 23) Unauthoriz

> 11) Ordinary mailing envelopes should not be used as evidence containers. A) True B) False 12) Bloodstained materials should be packaged in wrapping paper, manila envelopes, or paper bags. A) True B) False 13) The chain of custody does not usually pl

> Briefly describe the processes of algor mortis, livor mortis, and rigor mortis.

> 1) The obligation to maintain the integrity of evidence belongs to the first police officer at the scene only. A) True B) False 2) The relative evidential value of laboratory test results almost always depends on the way the evidence is collected and p

> 21) Which of the following systems is highly beneficial for law enforcement safety in that it allows for officers to fingerprint individuals they come into contact with quickly to detect whether or not they pose a potential threat? A) MorphoTrak B) IPS C

> 11) Which of the following features would NOT serve as a variable for analysis in biometric facial recognition? A) Cheekbones B) Neck C) Chin D) Widow’s peak 12) Which facial recognition technique uses a sequence of graphs to map the nonlinear relations

> 1) When Apple introduced the iPhone 5s in 2013, what breakthrough technology did this model contain? A) Video recording B) Extended battery life C) Retinal scanning option D) Touch ID 2) What is the most commonly used type of behavioral biometrics? A)

> 41) As the post mortem interval increases, the concentration of potassium in the vitreous humor of the eye: A) Increases. B) Decreases. C) Remains the same. D) Varies based on gender. 42) Which is NOT a manner of death? A) Natural B) Drowning C) H

> 31) Evidence of tampering with the position of a body after death can be obtained by evaluating the: A) Rigor mortis. B) Algor mortis. C) Livor mortis. D) Both B and C 32) Rigor mortis refers to the: A) Temperature of death. B) Stiffness of death. C

> 21) Hanging cases will typically display: A) Fracture of the hyoid bone. B) Fracture of the thyroid cartilage. C) Abundance of large petechiae on the eyelids. D) Blue appearance of the face. 22) Which is commonly fractured in strangulation cases? A) Hyo

> 11) Pulmonary edema is frequently found in victims that chronically abuse: A) Marijuana. B) Amphetamines. C) Heroin. D) Alcohol. 12) Beginning an hour after death, the body will lose heat at an approximate rate of: A) 0 — 0.5°F per hour. B) 0.5 — 1°F pe

> 1) What can be used in identifying a deceased individual? A) Fingerprinting B) Dental examination C) Facial reconstruction D) All of the above 2) The death of an individual suffering from chronic alcoholism is ruled: A) Natural. B) Accidental. C) Suicid

> 51) Computerized fingerprint search systems match prints by comparing the position of ________ and ________. A) Loops; arches B) Minutiae; ridge characteristics C) Bifurcations; ridge endings D) Ridges; furrows 52) The image produced from a digital file

> Explain the difference between autolysis and putrefaction. What are these processes dependent on?

> 41) The fingerprint pattern accounting for only 5% of all known patterns is the: A) Arch. B) Radial loop. C) Ulnar loop. D) Whorl. 42) A fingerprint pattern having no delta is a(n): A) Arch. B) Loop. C) Plain whorl. D) Central pocket loop. 43) Protein

> 31) In which order should chemical treatments to visualize latent prints be performed? 1. Ninhydrin 2. Iodine fuming 3. Physical developer A) 1, 3, 2 B) 2, 1, 3 C) 3, 1, 2 D) 1, 2, 3 32) Superglue fuming is NOT suitable for use on: A) Cardboard. B

> 21) The FBI’s IAFIS became fully operational in: A) 1977. B) 1989. C) 1991. D) 1999. 22) The AFIS search algorithm determines the degree of ________ between the location and relationship of the minutiae between the questioned fingerprint and those in

> 11) Prints that are not readily visible are commonly referred to as: A) Latent. B) Open. C) Plastic. D) Patent. 12) To permanently alter the fingerprint and produce scars, one must damage the: A) Minutiae. B) Ridges. C) Epidermis. D) Dermal papillae

> 1) Sir Francis Galton, in writing his textbook on fingerprints, built on the groundbreaking work in this area done by: A) Henry. B) Bertillon. C) Vucetich. D) Faulds. 2) The fingerprint classification system used in most English speaking countries was